playing over 200k hands, I haven't hit the jackpot once.I came across an article where
the guy claims that 📈 you can hit a 1 in 500 shot in poker using T9s-56s. Is that
true?According to my knowledge and what 📈 is stated on Wikipedia, it would be 0.0279%The
formula to calculate the jackpot value is: jackpot value = jackpot payout 📈 x probability
of hitting the jackpot in one hand.?? that 0.15bb-0.20bb~~ to extra evTo calculate the
